How do you set a formula for a cell so it applies it automatically?
Q. I am trying to create a cell with =100- as a constant. Basically I would like to just be able to type in a number, say 25 and then it would give me 75. I dont want to have to type =100-somenumber in each cell. I assume there is a way to setup the formula so it applies it to one or many cells and then makes the number dynamic based on what i enter in that cell. Thanks!
Asked by Marko N - Tue Aug 18 00:39:22 2009 - - 1 Answers - 0 Comments

A. One way to do this is to simply put the formula in the cell next to where you want to type in the data. Assume you have a constant (100) entered in cell H5 All you data goes into column A (the number you type) Your formulas are in column B Here's the formula: =$H$5-A1 Fill this formula all the way down the B column. It will change to +$H$5-A2 and so on. Then type your data in and the result shows in column B
Answered by vbmica - Fri Aug 21 06:08:28 2009

Are there Christians that really believe the 1st Amendment only applies to Christianity?
Q. My friend living outside Augusta, Georgia claims many Southerners tell him, with a straight face, "The first amendment only applies to Christianity." That the first amendment was passed to protect Christians from Persecution. That you are only free to practice Christianity here in America. Because we are a Christian nation.
Asked by Un Taro - Sun Jan 25 17:09:54 2009 - - 17 Answers - 0 Comments

A. America IS a christian nation---our forefathers founded this nation on christian values---not Islamic---not hindu---
Answered by Losasha - Sun Jan 25 17:13:13 2009

Jewish law from the old testament applies only to Jews. Why do Christians want to apply it to everyone?
Q. Christians love to cite Leviticus regarding homosexuals but strangely ignore the prohibition on pork for example. But why try to apply Jewish law applies only to Jews.
Asked by Statler & Waldorf - Thu Jan 22 10:55:34 2009 - - 19 Answers - 0 Comments

A. In fairness, the NT talks about homosexual acts too: Romans, 1 Cor, 1 Timothy, Jude, etc. But those references, just like the ones in the OT, refer to heterosexual people who were having homosexual sex in the context of idol worship. They assumed that everybody was born hetero, and if you had gay sex, it must be out of a willful act of perversion. Today, most rational people realize this is not true.
Answered by Jon M dn p s s - Thu Jan 22 10:59:16 2009